came to me last night.
This article just assumes the status quo remains as is and "favorable supply chains" get established no problem. Like theres no reason China militarized the South China Sea to begin with?
Why would they possibly do that?
It couldn't be just for the natural gas/oil and minerals right?
Couldn't be any other reason?
Free flow of trade among them?
(Currently 30% of all global maritime trade flows through the South China Sea, the thinking is it will continue to increase.)
Maybe?
Perhaps?
I think were foolish to think otherwise.
This article just assumes supply lines just get moved and life just goes on.
I think thats a huge assumptive mistake.
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